Welcome to the explanation for each answer to the (100) nursing school entrance exam questions you purchased.
- (20) ENGLISH QUESTIONS
- (20) BIOLOGY QUESTIONS
- (20) CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
- (15) PHYSICS QUESTIONS
- (15) MATHEMATICS QUESTIONS
- (10) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
- +50 CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS
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Nursing Entrance English questions
Read the passage below and answer questions 1–5.
Nursing is one of the most respected professions in the world.
Nurses work tirelessly to provide care and comfort to patients in hospitals, clinics and communities. They carry out doctors’ orders, administer medications, monitor patients’ conditions, and offer emotional support.
Despite the demanding nature of their work, many nurses find it deeply rewarding because they make a direct difference in people’s lives.
Good nurses must possess qualities such as compassion, patience, attention to detail, and the ability to work under pressure.
1. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a quality a good nurse must possess?
A. Compassion
B. Intelligence
C. Patience
D. Attention to detail
SEE (1) EXPLANATION ⛔
While intelligence is vital for nursing, the passage doesn’t mention it.
2. The word "tirelessly" as used in the passage means _____
A. lazily
B. without rest
C. carefully
D. slowly
SEE (2) EXPLANATION ⛔
The suffix “-less” means “without.”
3. According to the passage, nurses find their job rewarding because _____
A. they earn high salaries
B. they work in hospitals
C. they make a direct difference
D. they carry out doctors' orders
SEE (3) EXPLANATION ⛔
The third paragraph clearly states the answer.
4. The passage describes nursing as _____
A. a simple profession
B. a rewarding profession
C. a dangerous profession
D. an unpopular profession
SEE (4) EXPLANATION ⛔
Also in the third paragraph.
5. What does the word "administer" mean as used in the passage?
A. to avoid
B. to give
C. to collect
D. to prescribe
SEE (5) EXPLANATION ⛔
In medical context, to “administer medications” means to legally and safely give drug(s) to a patient.
6. The word CANDID most nearly means _____
A. secretive
B. honest
C. confused
D. formal
SEE (6) EXPLANATION ⛔
Candid means straightforward, frank or sincere.
7. Which sentence is in the active voice?
A. The patient was attended to by the nurse.
B. The medication was administered at noon.
C. The nurse administered the medication at noon.
D. The ward was cleaned by the orderlies.
SEE (7) EXPLANATION ⛔
In active voice, the subject of the sentence (doer of the action) comes before the action (verb) itself.
8. Choose the correct option. "The patient _____ before the ambulance arrived."
A. died
B. had died
C. has died
D. dies
SEE (8) EXPLANATION ⛔
When two actions happened in the past, the first action uses the Past Perfect (had + verb).
9. Choose the correct pronoun: "Neither the doctor nor the nurses did _____ best."
A. his
B. their
C. its
D. her
SEE (9) EXPLANATION ⛔
In “Neither/Nor” sentence, the pronoun must match the nearest subject.
10. A doctor who specialises in the treatment of children is called a _____
A. gynaecologist
B. dentist
C. paediatrician
D. dermatologist
SEE (10) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Gynaecologist (treats the female reproductive system)
- Dentist (treats the teeth)
- Dermatologist (treats skin conditions)
11. The antonym of AGGRAVATE is _____
A. worsen
B. irritate
C. alleviate
D. provoke
SEE (11) EXPLANATION ⛔
To aggravate means to make something worse. Its opposite (antonym) is alleviate, which means to make something more bearable.
12. Identify the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement. A. A number of nurses was absent. B. A number of nurses were absent. C. A number of nurses has been absent. D. A number of nurses is absent.
SEE (12) EXPLANATION ⛔
“The number of…” is treated as SINGULAR, taking a singular verb (is, was). While “A number of…” is treated as PLURAL, to take a plural verb (were).
13. Which of the following words is correctly spelled?
A. diarrhoea
B. diarhoea
C. diarrhea
D. Both A and C
SEE (13) EXPLANATION ⛔
- “Diarrhoea” is British English.
- “Diarrhea” is American English.
14. Select the correct sentence.
A. She have completed her training.
B. She has completed her training.
C. She having completed her training.
D. She had complete her training.
SEE (14) EXPLANATION ⛔
“She” is a singular pronoun. So, it takes the singular verb “has” + past participle (“completed”).
15. Which of the following words is correctly stressed?
A. hos-PI-tal
B. HOS-pi-tal
C. hos-pi-TAL
D. hos-pi-tal
SEE (15) EXPLANATION ⛔
Most three-syllable nouns ending in -al are stressed on their 1st syllable.
16. Choose the correct article: "She is _____ honest woman."
A. a
B. the
C. an
D. no article
SEE (16) EXPLANATION ⛔
The ‘h’ in “honest” is silent, so the word begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/) instead, requires the article “an”.
17. The word "psychology" begins with which sound?
A. /p/
B. /ps/
C. /s/
D. /z/
SEE (17) EXPLANATION ⛔
The first letter ‘p’ is silent, so the word begins with the voiceless sound /s/ sound
18. Which of the following has a different vowel sound from others?
A. seat
B. feet
C. set
D. meat
SEE (18) EXPLANATION ⛔
“seat, feet and meat” all contain the vowel sound /iː/. Unlike “set” that has the vowel sound /e/.
19. Select the correct sentence.
A. Neither the nurse or the doctor was available.
B. Neither the nurse nor the doctor was available.
C. Neither the nurse and the doctor was available.
D. Neither the nurse but the doctor was available.
SEE (19) EXPLANATION ⛔
- “Neither” always go with “nor”.
- “Either” goes with “or”.
20. Which of the following words contains a diphthong?
A. sit
B. bet
C. boy
D. cat
SEE (20) EXPLANATION ⛔
- “boy” contains the diphthong /ɔɪ/.
- sit (/ɪ/), bet (/e/) and cat (/æ/) all monophthongs.
Nursing Entrance Biology questions
21. Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?
A. Lion
B. Grass
C. Mushroom
D. Grasshopper
SEE (21) EXPLANATION ⛔
Decomposers (like fungi and bacteria) break down dead organic matter. Mushrooms are fungi. Grass is a producer, while lions and grasshoppers are consumers.
22. Which of the following is the correct path of blood through the heart?
A. Right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → body
B. Left atrium → left ventricle → lungs → right atrium → right ventricle → body
C. Right ventricle → right atrium → lungs → left ventricle → left atrium → body
D. Left ventricle → left atrium → lungs → right ventricle → right atrium → body
SEE (22) EXPLANATION ⛔
Deoxygenated blood enters the “right atrium” from the body, flows into the “right ventricle” and pumped to the “lungs” for oxygen. Then oxygenated blood returns to the “left atrium”, moves to the “left ventricle” and pumped out through the aorta to the “body”.
23. Which of the following is a viral disease?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Cholera
D. Measles
SEE (23) EXPLANATION ⛔
Only measles is caused by a virus. The rest are all caused by bacteria.
24. Which of the following best describes a prokaryotic cell?
A. It has a membrane-bound nucleus
B. It has no true nucleus
C. It is only found in animals
D. It contains chloroplasts
SEE (24) EXPLANATION ⛔
Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-enclosed nucleus and internal membrane-bound organelles. Their genetic material floats freely in the cytoplasm.
25. The body's first line of defence against infection is _____
A. white blood cells
B. antibodies
C. the skin
D. the lymph nodes
SEE (25) EXPLANATION ⛔
The skin acts as a physical and chemical barrier preventing pathogens from entering the body, making it the 1st line of defence. The rest are 2nd and 3rd lines.
26. Down syndrome is caused by _____
A. a virus
B. an extra chromosome
C. a missing chromosome
D. a bacterial infection
SEE (26) EXPLANATION ⛔
Down syndrome is as a result of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (3 copies instead of 2).
27. Which part of the leaf is the main site of photosynthesis?
A. Root hair
B. Epidermis
C. Mesophyll cells
D. Stomata
SEE (27) EXPLANATION ⛔
The mesophyll layer has the highest concentration of chloroplasts, making it the primary site of photosynthesis in a leaf.
28. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
SEE (28) EXPLANATION ⛔
Vitamin K is essential for the clotting factors required in blood coagulation.
29. The scientific study and classification of organisms is called _____
A. Ecology
B. Physiology
C. Taxonomy
D. Genetics
SEE (29) EXPLANATION ⛔
Taxonomy is the branch of science concerned with naming and classifying organisms.
30. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
A. Measles
B. Tuberculosis
C. Malaria
D. Cholera
SEE (30) EXPLANATION ⛔
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are protozoans.
31. The enzyme that breaks down starch in the mouth is called _____
A. pepsin
B. lipase
C. amylase
D. trypsin
SEE (31) EXPLANATION ⛔
Salivary amylase (ptyalin) is secreted by the salivary glands in the mouth to break down complex starches into simpler sugars like maltose.
32. The normal pulse rate for a healthy adult at rest is _____
A. 40–50 beats per minute
B. 60–100 beats per minute
C. 110–130 beats per minute
D. 140–160 beats per minute
SEE (32) EXPLANATION ⛔
The normal resting pulse rate for a healthy adult ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).
33. The hormone responsible for regulating blood sugar levels is _____
A. adrenaline
B. thyroxine
C. insulin
D. oestrogen
SEE (33) EXPLANATION ⛔
Insulin is produced in the pancreas and lowers blood glucose levels by facilitating glucose uptake into cells and stimulating glycogen formation.
34. The tiny pores on the surface of leaves through which gas exchange occurs are called _____
A. lenticels
B. stomata
C. villi
D. alveoli
SEE (34) EXPLANATION ⛔
Stomata are microscopic pores on leaves surrounded by guard cells, allowing CO2 to enter for photosynthesis and O2 or water vapour to exit.
35. In humans, the sex of a child is determined by _____
A. the mother's chromosomes
B. the father's chromosomes
C. environmental conditions
D. nutrition during pregnancy
SEE (35) EXPLANATION ⛔
Female gamete (egg) carries two X chromosomes (XX). While males gamete (sperm) carries one X and one Y chromosome (XY). The sex of the child is determined by whether an X or Y sperm fertilizes the egg.
36. Which hormone triggers ovulation?
A. Oestrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Luteinising hormone (LH)
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
SEE (36) EXPLANATION ⛔
A rapid surge in Luteinizing Hormone (LH) triggered by high oestrogen levels induces the rupture of the mature follicle and the release of an egg (ovulation).
37. Which of the following organs is most affected by hepatitis?
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Heart
SEE (37) EXPLANATION ⛔
“Hepatitis” means inflammation of the liver.
38. Which of the following is an example of a mammal?
A. Shark
B. Frog
C. Eagle
D. Dolphin
SEE (38) EXPLANATION ⛔
Dolphins are marine mammals. They give birth to live young, produce milk, breathe air using lungs and are warm-blooded. Sharks are fish, frogs are amphibians and eagles are birds.
39. Anaerobic respiration in muscles produces _____
A. glucose and oxygen
B. lactic acid and energy
C. carbon dioxide and water
D. alcohol and carbon dioxide
SEE (39) EXPLANATION ⛔
When muscle cells run short of oxygen during intense activity, pyruvate is converted via anaerobic fermentation into lactic acid, releasing a small yield of ATP (energy).
40. How many pairs of chromosomes does a normal human body cell contain?
A. 23 pairs
B. 24 pairs
C. 46 pairs
D. 48 pairs
SEE (40) EXPLANATION ⛔
Human somatic (body) cells are diploid, containing 46 individual chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs.
Nursing Entrance Chemistry questions
41. The functional group —COOH is characteristic of _____
A. alcohols
B. carboxylic acids
C. esters
D. aldehydes
SEE (41) EXPLANATION ⛔
The carboxyl group (-COOH) consists of a carbonyl group (-C=O) and a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to the same carbon atom.
42. Which of the following is a mixture?
A. Distilled water
B. Common salt
C. Air
D. Carbon dioxide
SEE (42) EXPLANATION ⛔
A mixture is physically combined and easier to separate. Distilled water, common salt and carbon dioxide are pure chemical compounds.
43. A solute is _____
A. the substance that does the dissolving
B. the substance that is dissolved
C. the resulting mixture after dissolving
D. any liquid used in dissolving
SEE (43) EXPLANATION ⛔
In a solution, the solute is the solid being dissolved, while the solvent is the liquid doing the dissolving.
44. Which of the following is a physical change?
A. Burning of wood
B. Rusting of iron
C. Melting of ice
D. Digestion of food
SEE (44) EXPLANATION ⛔
A physical change doesn’t alter the chemical composition and the process is easily reversible. Burning wood, rusting iron and digesting food create new chemical substances.
45. Acid rain is caused by the dissolution of which gases in atmospheric water?
A. Oxygen and nitrogen
B. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
C. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
D. Hydrogen and chlorine
SEE (45) EXPLANATION ⛔
Acid rain forms when industrial emissions of SO2 and NOx react with water vapour, oxygen and atmospheric gases to form dilute sulphuric and nitric acids.
46. How many electrons does a neutral sodium atom (atomic number 11) have?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
SEE (46) EXPLANATION ⛔
The number of electrons is always equal to the atomic number in any neutral atom.
47. Which of the following best describes a pure substance?
A. A mixture of two or more elements
B. A substance with a fixed composition and definite properties
C. Any substance that dissolves in water
D. A substance that changes colour when heated
SEE (47) EXPLANATION ⛔
A pure substance consists of only one type of particle with constant chemical composition and distinct physical properties.
48. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with _____
A. the same mass number but different atomic numbers
B. the same atomic number but different mass numbers
C. different numbers of protons
D. different chemical properties
SEE (48) EXPLANATION ⛔
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons (same atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons (giving them different mass numbers).
49. Which of the following best describes a pure substance?
A. A mixture of two or more elements
B. A substance with a fixed composition and definite properties
C. Any substance that dissolves in water
D. A substance that changes colour when heated
SEE (49) EXPLANATION ⛔
Same with #47.
50. A solution with pH 2 is _____
A. strongly alkaline
B. weakly alkaline
C. neutral
D. strongly acidic
SEE (50) EXPLANATION ⛔
The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14:
- 12 to 14: Strongly alkaline
- 0 to 3: Strongly acidic
- 4 to 6: Weakly acidic
- 7: Neutral
- 8 to 11: Weakly alkaline
51. The salt formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide is _____
A. sodium sulphate
B. sodium carbonate
C. sodium chloride
D. sodium nitrate
SEE (51) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Neutralization between acid and base produce salt and water:
- HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
- The resulting salt is sodium chloride (table salt).
52. The symbol for iron is _____
A. Ir
B. In
C. Fe
D. Fr
SEE (52) EXPLANATION ⛔
The chemical symbol for iron is Fe, from its Latin name (Ferrum).
53. Which of the following is used to test for the presence of starch?
A. Benedict's solution
B. Iodine solution
C. Fehling's solution
D. Lime water
SEE (53) EXPLANATION ⛔
Iodine solution turns from brownish-orange to deep blue-black in the presence of starch. Options A and C test for reducing sugars.
54. The general formula for alkanes is _____
A. CₙH₂ₙ
B. CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
C. CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
D. CₙHₙ
SEE (54) EXPLANATION ⛔
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with only single bonds. Their general molecular formula is CnH(2n+2).
55. Which of the following is a strong acid?
A. Acetic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Carbonic acid
SEE (55) EXPLANATION ⛔
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid because it completely ionizes into H+ and Cl– ions in aqueous solution. Other options are weak acids that only partially ionize.
56. How many atoms are present in one molecule of H₂SO₄?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
SEE (56) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Count the total number of atoms in one molecule of Sulphuric Acid (H2SO4):
- Hydrogen (H): 2 atoms
- Sulphur (S): 1 atom
- Oxygen (O): 4 atoms
- Total = 2 + 1 + 4
57. Which of the following is a decomposition reaction?
A. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
B. 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
C. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
D. Fe + S → FeS
SEE (57) EXPLANATION ⛔
A decomposition reaction occurs when a single complex compound breaks down into 2 or more simpler substances (AB → A + B).
58. Temporary hardness in water can be removed by _____
A. adding salt
B. boiling
C. filtering
D. adding acid
SEE (58) EXPLANATION ⛔
Temporary hardness is due to dissolved calcium hydrogen carbonate (Ca(HCO3)2). Boiling decomposes it into insoluble calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which precipitates out as scale or scum, softening the water.
59. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with _____
A. the same mass number but different atomic numbers
B. the same atomic number but different mass numbers
C. different numbers of protons
D. different chemical properties
SEE (59) EXPLANATION ⛔
Isotopes share the same chemical identity and position on the periodic table but differ in atomic mass due to varying neutron counts.
60. The simplest organic compound is _____
A. ethane
B. methane
C. propane
D. butane
SEE (60) EXPLANATION ⛔
Methane (CH4) is the simplest alkane and the simplest organic compound, with just one central carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms.
Nursing Entrance Physics questions
61. The formula for kinetic energy is _____
A. KE = mgh
B. KE = ½mv²
C. KE = mv
D. KE = Fd
SEE (61) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Kinetic energy (KE) depends on the object’s mass (m) and velocity (v).
- The formula is KE = ½mv2
- mgh is for potential energy.
- mv is for momentum.
- Fd is for work done.
62. A car travels 120 km in 2 hours. What is its average speed?
A. 40 km/h
B. 50 km/h
C. 60 km/h
D. 80 km/h
SEE (62) EXPLANATION ⛔
63. The specific heat capacity of a substance is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of _____
A. 1 gram of the substance by 10°C
B. 1 kilogram of the substance by 1°C
C. 1 kilogram of the substance by 10°C
D. 100 grams of the substance by 1°C
SEE (63) EXPLANATION ⛔
Specific heat capacity (c) is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of a substance by 1K (or 1°C).
64. Which of the following is a derived unit?
A. Kilogram
B. Second
C. Metre
D. Newton
SEE (64) EXPLANATION ⛔
Kilogram, second and metre are base (fundamental) SI units. Newton (N) is a derived unit because it is composed of base units (kg m/s2).
65. Which of the following cannot travel through a vacuum?
A. Light waves
B. Radio waves
C. Sound waves
D. X-rays
SEE (65) EXPLANATION ⛔
Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a physical medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to propagate by vibration. Others are electromagnetic waves, which can travel through a vacuum.
66. A body of mass 2 kg is moving at a velocity of 4 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
A. 8 J
B. 12 J
C. 16 J
D. 32 J
SEE (66) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Using KE = ½mv2
67. An object will float in a liquid if its density is _____
A. greater than the density of the liquid
B. equal to twice the density of the liquid
C. less than the density of the liquid
D. equal to the mass of the liquid
SEE (67) EXPLANATION ⛔
The Law of Flotation states that an object floats if its overall density is less than the density of the fluid it is placed in, allowing the upthrust to balance its weight.
68. A fuse is used in an electrical circuit to _____
A. increase the current
B. store electrical energy
C. protect the circuit from excessive current
D. reduce the voltage
SEE (68) EXPLANATION ⛔
A fuse contains a thin wire designed to melt and break the electrical circuit when the current exceeds a specific safe limit, preventing electrical fires and equipment damage.
69. The SI unit of power is the ___
A. joule
B. newton
C. watt
D. pascal
SEE (69) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Power is the rate of doing work or transferring energy (Joule per second = J/s).
- Its SI unit is the Watt (W)
- Joule alone is for energy.
- Newton is for force.
- Pascal is for pressure.
70. Which of the following types of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?
A. Alpha (α) radiation
B. Beta (β) radiation
C. Gamma (γ) radiation
D. Infrared radiation
SEE (70) EXPLANATION ⛔
Gamma ray has high-energy electromagnetic waves with no mass or charge, giving it the highest penetrating power. Unlike α particles (stopped by paper) and β particles (stopped by aluminium).
71. The formula for Ohm's law is _____
A. V = IR
B. V = I/R
C. V = I + R
D. V = I – R
SEE (71) EXPLANATION ⛔
Ohm’s Law states that potential difference (V) across a conductor is directly proportional to the current (I) flowing through it, where R is resistance. So, V = IR.
72. Pressure in a liquid increases with _____
A. decrease in depth
B. increase in depth
C. decrease in temperature
D. increase in surface area
SEE (72) EXPLANATION ⛔
Liquid pressure is calculated using P = ρgh (where h is depth). Pressure increases as (h) below the surface increases.
73. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately _____
A. 8 m/s²
B. 9.8 m/s²
C. 10.8 m/s²
D. 12 m/s²
SEE (73) EXPLANATION ⛔
Standard acceleration due to gravity (g) near the Earth’s surface is approximately 9.80665 m/s2 (often rounded to 9.8m/s2 or 10m/s2
74. The SI unit of time is the ____
A. minute
B. hour
C. second
D. millisecond
SEE (74) EXPLANATION ⛔
The fundamental unit for measuring time is second (s).
75. An object has a mass of 5 kg. What is its weight? [g = 10 m/s²]
A. 5 N
B. 10 N
C. 50 N
D. 500 N
SEE (75) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Weight (W) = mass (m) × gravity (g)
- W = 5 × 10
Nursing Entrance Math questions
76. Simplify: ¾ + ⅓
A. 4/7
B. 13/12
C. 1/12
D. 7/12
SEE (76) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Find the LCM of the denominator.
- LCM of 4 and 3 is (12)
- Divide the LCM with each denominator.
- 12 ÷ 4 = (3)
- 12 ÷ 3 = (4)
- Multiply the answer by their numerator.
- 3 × 3 = (9)
- 4 × 1 = (4)
- Rewrite the fractions as:
- Add only the numerators (maintain the denominator)
77. How many minutes are in 3¾ hours?
A. 195 minutes
B. 210 minutes
C. 215 minutes
D. 225 minutes
SEE (77) EXPLANATION ⛔
- 3 hours = 3.75
- Convert 3.75 hours to minutes.
- 60 minutes = 1 hour
- x minutes = 3.75 hours
- Cross multiply:
- 60 × 3.75 = ??
78. The ratio of male to female nurses in a ward is 2:7. If there are 18 male nurses, how many female nurses are there?
A. 54
B. 63
C. 72
D. 81
SEE (78) EXPLANATION ⛔
- The ratio means for every 2 male nurses, there are 7 female nurses.
- So for 18 males:
- (18 ÷ 2) = 9
- Now, multiply the females by that 9:
- (7 × 9) = ???
79. A patient needs to take 2 tablets every 6 hours. How many tablets will the patient take in 24 hours?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
SEE (79) EXPLANATION ⛔
- 1 day has 24 hours, so every 6 hours means 4 times a day.
- 24 ÷ 6 = 4
- Since the patient takes 2 tablets each time, that is:
- 4 × 2 = ??? tablets
80. If 2/3 of a number is 48, what is the number?
A. 32
B. 60
C. 72
D. 96
SEE (80) EXPLANATION ⛔
- If 2 parts out of 3 equal 48…
- Then 1 part is half of that:
- 48 ÷ 2 = 24
- The whole number (3 parts) is 24 × 3 = ???
81. A pie chart has a sector representing 25% of a total. What is the angle of that sector?
A. 60°
B. 75°
C. 90°
D. 120°
SEE (81) EXPLANATION ⛔
- A full circle or pie chart is 360°
- Since 25% means one-quarter (¼)…
- One-quarter of 360° is:
82. What principal amount will yield ₦2,400 as simple interest at 6% per annum for 4 years?
A. ₦8,000
B. ₦9,000
C. ₦10,000
D. ₦12,000
SEE (82) EXPLANATION ⛔
- I = Simple Interest (₦2,400)
- P = Principal (???)
- R = Rate (6%)
- T = Time (4 years)
Cross multiply…
Divide both sides…
Principal (P) is therefore ???
83. What type of triangle has all three sides equal?
A. Scalene
B. Isosceles
C. Equilateral
D. Right-angled
SEE (83) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Equilateral is a triangle where all three sides are the exact same length.
- Option B only has two equal sides, not all three!
84. Factorise: x² − 9
A. (x − 3)(x + 3)
B. (x − 9)(x + 1)
C. (x + 3)²
D. (x − 3)²
SEE (84) EXPLANATION ⛔
- This follows a special math rule for subtracting two square numbers:
- a2 – b2 = (a-b)(a+b)
- And since 3 × 3 = 9…
- x2 – 9 splits into (x-3)(x+3)
85. What is the value of 0.4 × 0.05?
A. 0.002
B. 0.02
C. 0.2
D. 2.0
SEE (85) EXPLANATION ⛔
- First multiply the whole numbers:
- 4 × 5 = 20
- Next, count the total decimal spaces in the question:
- 1 place in 0.4 plus 2 places in 0.05 = 3 places
- So, move the point 3 times from the back of 20
- 0.020 (or 0.02)
86. What is the sum of interior angles of a quadrilateral?
A. 180°
B. 270°
C. 360°
D. 540°
SEE (86) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Four-sided flat shapes are called “quadrilaterals” and they always have inside angles that sum up to 360°
87. If a drug costs ₦450 and the price increases by 20%, what is the new price?
A. ₦490
B. ₦510
C. ₦530
D. ₦540
SEE (87) EXPLANATION ⛔
- 20% of ₦450 means:
- Zeros down cancel zeros up…
- 2 × 45 = ???
88. A student scored 72 out of 90 in a test. What percentage did she score?
A. 78%
B. 80%
C. 82%
D. 84%
SEE (88) EXPLANATION ⛔
- 72 out of 90 = 72/90
- Percentage = 100
89. Make r the subject of the formula: V = πr²h
A. r = √(V/πh)
B. r = V/πh
C. r = √(Vπh)
D. r = V²/πh
SEE (89) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Divide both sides by πh…
- Square root both sides to remove the square power of (r)…
- Therefore…
90. A patient's temperature dropped from 39.5°C to 37.0°C. By how much did the temperature drop?
A. 1.5°C
B. 2.0°C
C. 2.5°C
D. 3.0°C
SEE (90) EXPLANATION ⛔
- Subtract the lower body temperature from the higher one:
- 39.5°C – 37.0°C
Nursing Entrance General Knowledge questions
91. MRI in medicine stands for _____
A. Medical Radioactive Imaging
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
C. Magnetic Radiation Imaging
D. Medical Resonance Investigation
SEE (91) EXPLANATION ⛔
MRI uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to generate detailed images of organs and tissues inside the body without using ionizing radiation.
92. What is the capital city of Nigeria?
A. Lagos
B. Port Harcourt
C. Abuja
D. Kaduna
SEE (92) EXPLANATION ⛔
Abuja became the capital of Nigeria in December 1991, replacing Lagos.
93. The largest country in Africa by land area is _____
A. Sudan
B. Nigeria
C. Algeria
D. DR Congo
SEE (93) EXPLANATION ⛔
Algeria is the largest country in Africa (and the Arab world) with land area of about 2.38 million square kilometres.
94. Nigeria became a republic in _____
A. 1960
B. 1962
C. 1963
D. 1966
SEE (94) EXPLANATION ⛔
Nigeria gained independence on October 1, 1960, but became a Federal Republic on October 1, 1963 with Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe as its first President.
95. The International symbol for medicine and healthcare featuring a snake and a staff is called the _____
A. Red Cross
B. Rod of Asclepius
C. Nightingale Lamp
D. Hippocratic symbol
SEE (95) EXPLANATION ⛔
A single serpent wrapped around a rod is the ancient Greek symbol associated with Asclepius (the Greek god of healing and medicine). The two-snake Caduceus is also used in healthcare contexts.
96. The Nigerian National Assembly consists of _____
A. the Senate only
B. the House of Representatives only
C. the Senate and House of Representatives
D. the House of Assembly and Senate
SEE (96) EXPLANATION ⛔
Nigerian National Assembly is a bicameral legislature made of upper chamber (Senate) and lower chamber (House of Representatives).
97. The World Health Organisation (WHO) is headquartered in _____
A. New York, USA
B. London, UK
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Paris, France
SEE (97) EXPLANATION ⛔
World Health Organization (WHO), established in 1948 as an agency of the United Nations, is headquartered in Geneva.
98. World AIDS Day is observed on _____
A. October 1
B. November 14
C. December 1
D. December 10
SEE (98) EXPLANATION ⛔
World AIDS Day is observed every December 1st since 1988.
98. NMCN stands for _____
A. Nigerian Midwifery Council of Nigeria
B. Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria
C. National Medical Council of Nigeria
D. Nigerian Medical and Care Network
SEE (98) EXPLANATION ⛔
NMCN is the regulatory body established to oversee the education, licensing and professional practice of Nurses and Midwives in Nigeria.
99. Florence Nightingale was born on _____
A. May 10, 1820
B. May 12, 1820
C. May 15, 1820
D. May 12, 1823
SEE (99) EXPLANATION ⛔
Florence Nightingale (founder of modern nursing) was born on May 12, 1820. Her birthday is celebrated globally every year as International Nurses Day.
100. The smallpox vaccine was developed by _____
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Edward Jenner
D. Robert Koch
SEE (100) EXPLANATION ⛔
English physician Edward Jenner developed the world’s first successful vaccine (for smallpox) in 1796 using cowpox material, starting the field of vaccinology.
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